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Old 04-20-2008, 11:21 AM   #60 (permalink)
CounterPuncher
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Quote:
Originally Posted by subgenius View Post
Serra-GSP 1 = Serra dominated completely

Serra-GSP 2 = GSP dominated completely

Did I miss something?

The first fight was NOT a fluke. GSP had been completely owned by Matt Serra. The ONLY reason people keep saying it was a fluke was because Serra was "supposed to lose" that fight. Sorry GSP, but "I was not impressed with your performance." I love throwing those words back in his face. It took two rounds for GSP to do to Serra what Serra did to GSP in one round.

Compare all you like, but the bottom line is that these two fighters are now 1-1 against each other. Each took a title belt from the other guy in DOMINANT style. IMO, they are now even. Only a rubber match will decide who really is the better fighter.
I completely agree. Although I do think GSP would win the third match, technically they are even, and if Serra can win a fight or two then we might just get to see it.
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